AIIMS NORCET 11 2026 Stage 2: These 50 practice MCQs are designed for AIIMS NORCET 11 Stage-II preparation. They focus on nursing subjects, clinical application, prioritisation, and case-based questions—areas candidates should revise for a nursing-focused mains examination.
Important: These are predicted/practice questions, not leaked or officially confirmed AIIMS questions. You cannot predict the exact questions in Stage-II.
The uploaded memory-based paper indicates that Stage-II is nursing-focused and includes 160 MCQs to be attempted in 180 minutes, with negative marking.
Is the NORCET 11 2026 Stage 2 syllabus different from the NORCET Stage I exam?
No, AIIMS does not describe a different syllabus for the NORCET Stage II exam. The difficulty level of the Stage II exam increases. So candidates have to be more cautious in answering the questions. They must understand the question properly and then answer it.
NORCET 11 2026 Stage 2 Practice Set
The question selection is informed by the published NORCET syllabus descriptions and preparation resources, which identify the entire nursing curriculum as the Stage-II focus. The questions below are original practice questions, not copied questions from coaching websites.
Also read: AIIMS NORCET Previous Year Question Paper
Section 1: Fundamentals of Nursing
Q1. A patient receiving oxygen therapy suddenly becomes restless and develops cyanosis. What should the nurse do first?
A. Increase the oxygen flow rate
B. Assess airway and breathing
C. Administer a sedative
D. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
Answer: B
Q2. Which action is most effective in preventing catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)?
A. Routine bladder irrigation
B. Maintaining a closed drainage system
C. Disconnecting the catheter daily
D. Restricting oral fluids
Answer: B
Q3. A patient with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 7 is admitted to the emergency department. Which intervention has the highest priority?
A. Oral feeding
B. Airway protection
C. Ambulation
D. Range-of-motion exercise
Answer: B
Q4. Which position is generally recommended for a patient experiencing severe dyspnoea?
A. Supine
B. High Fowler’s
C. Trendelenburg
D. Prone with legs elevated
Answer: B
Q5. A nurse discovers that a patient has received an incorrect medication dose. What is the first appropriate action?
A. Complete the incident report
B. Inform the patient’s relatives
C. Assess the patient’s condition
D. Wait for symptoms to develop
Answer: C
Q6. Which finding is most suggestive of hypovolemic shock?
A. Bounding pulse
B. Warm, flushed skin
C. Tachycardia with hypotension
D. Bradycardia with hypertension
Answer: C
Q7. During adult CPR, the recommended chest compression rate is:
A. 60–80 per minute
B. 80–90 per minute
C. 100–120 per minute
D. 140–160 per minute
Answer: C
Q8. Which type of isolation is usually required for a patient with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis?
A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Protective isolation only
Answer: C
Q9. The most reliable method for confirming the placement of an endotracheal tube after intubation is:
A. Chest movement alone
B. Pulse oximetry alone
C. Capnography with clinical assessment
D. Auscultation of the stomach only
Answer: C
Q10. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with prolonged vomiting?
A. Hyperkalaemia
B. Hypokalaemia
C. Hypermagnesaemia
D. Hyperphosphataemia
Answer: B
Section 2: Medical-Surgical Nursing
Q11. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis is admitted with severe dehydration. Which fluid is generally used initially for fluid resuscitation?
A. 0.9% normal saline
B. 5% dextrose only
C. 3% hypertonic saline
D. 10% dextrose
Answer: A
Q12. Which ECG finding is classically associated with hyperkalaemia?
A. Prolonged QT interval
B. Tall, peaked T waves
C. U waves
D. ST elevation in every lead
Answer: B
Q13. A patient receiving digoxin reports nausea and visual disturbances. The nurse should suspect:
A. Digoxin toxicity
B. Iron deficiency
C. Hyperglycaemia
D. Dehydration only
Answer: A
Q14. Which clinical manifestation is most characteristic of left-sided heart failure?
A. Pulmonary congestion
B. Enlarged liver only
C. Ascites without respiratory symptoms
D. Peripheral cyanosis only
Answer: A
Q15. A patient with a suspected acute myocardial infarction arrives in the emergency department. Which diagnostic test is especially important for early evaluation?
A. Serum amylase
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Urine culture
D. Spirometry
Answer: B
Q16. Which assessment finding is most consistent with increased intracranial pressure?
A. Improved level of consciousness
B. Persistent vomiting and altered consciousness
C. Increased urine output
D. Bilateral ankle oedema only
Answer: B
Q17. A patient with COPD is receiving oxygen. The nurse should primarily monitor for:
A. Carbon dioxide retention
B. Hypoglycaemia
C. Severe hypercalcaemia
D. Increased haemoglobin synthesis
Answer: A
Q18. Which laboratory finding is commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome?
A. Severe proteinuria
B. Reduced serum cholesterol
C. Increased serum albumin
D. Absence of oedema
Answer: A
Q19. A patient develops sudden facial drooping and weakness of one arm. What is the nurse’s priority?
A. Give oral fluids
B. Note the time of symptom onset and activate stroke protocol
C. Encourage the patient to sleep
D. Administer an oral sedative
Answer: B
Q20. Which diet is generally appropriate for a patient with severe neutropenia?
A. Raw food diet
B. Food-safety precautions with appropriately prepared food
C. Unpasteurised dairy products
D. Raw sprouts and uncooked eggs
Answer: B
Section 3: Pharmacology
Q21. Which medication is commonly used as an antidote for opioid overdose?
A. Naloxone
B. Atropine
C. Flumazenil
D. Protamine sulphate
Answer: A
Q22. A patient receiving heparin develops significant bleeding. Which medication may be used as an antidote?
A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulphate
C. Naloxone
D. Deferoxamine
Answer: B
Q23. Before administering digoxin, the nurse should assess the patient’s:
A. Apical pulse
B. Pupillary reaction only
C. Bowel sounds only
D. Skin turgor only
Answer: A
Q24. Which adverse effect should be monitored in a patient receiving gentamicin?
A. Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
B. Severe hypoglycaemia in every patient
C. Gingival hyperplasia
D. Orange discolouration of urine only
Answer: A
Q25. A patient taking warfarin requires regular monitoring of:
A. INR
B. Serum amylase
C. Troponin-I only
D. Blood urea nitrogen only
Answer: A
Q26. Which instruction is appropriate for a patient taking oral iron supplements?
A. Take with tea for better absorption
B. Expect that stools may become dark
C. Stop the medication after one dose
D. Take only with antacids
Answer: B
Q27. A patient receiving insulin develops sweating, tremors, and confusion. The nurse should suspect:
A. Hypercalcaemia
B. Hypoglycaemia
C. Hypernatraemia
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: B
Section 4: Obstetric and Gynaecological Nursing
Q28. A woman develops heavy bleeding immediately after delivery. The uterus is boggy on palpation. Which condition is most likely?
A. Uterine atony
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Placenta previa before labour
D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
Answer: A
Q29. Which drug is commonly used as a uterotonic in the management of postpartum haemorrhage?
A. Oxytocin
B. Diazepam
C. Furosemide
D. Heparin
Answer: A
Q30. A pregnant woman at 34 weeks presents with severe headache, blurred vision, and high blood pressure. Which complication should the nurse suspect?
A. Mild anaemia
B. Severe pre-eclampsia
C. Normal pregnancy discomfort
D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
Answer: B
Q31. Which finding is a warning sign of magnesium sulphate toxicity?
A. Absent deep tendon reflexes
B. Increased appetite
C. Mild thirst
D. Increased bowel sounds
Answer: A
Q32. A woman with ruptured membranes is at increased risk of:
A. Ascites
B. Ascending infection
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Cataract formation
Answer: B
Q33. The most important initial action for a newborn who is not breathing effectively after birth is to:
A. Start feeding immediately
B. Provide appropriate initial resuscitation and ventilation support
C. Give oral antibiotics
D. Place the newborn in a cold environment
Answer: B
Section 5: Child Health Nursing
Q34. Which sign is most suggestive of severe dehydration in a child?
A. Normal activity and moist mucosa
B. Lethargy or unconsciousness
C. Increased urine output
D. Normal thirst response only
Answer: B
Q35. A child with suspected epiglottitis is admitted. Which action should the nurse avoid?
A. Maintaining a calm environment
B. Preparing for airway management
C. Attempting to inspect the throat forcefully with a tongue depressor
D. Monitoring respiratory status
Answer: C
Q36. Which vaccine is administered intradermally in the routine childhood immunisation schedule in India?
A. BCG
B. Oral polio vaccine
C. Rotavirus vaccine
D. Measles-containing vaccine
Answer: A
Q37. A child with Tetralogy of Fallot develops a cyanotic spell. Which position may help improve symptoms?
A. Knee-chest position
B. Trendelenburg position
C. Supine with legs flat
D. Prone with head down
Answer: A
Q38. Which developmental milestone is generally expected around 6 months of age?
A. Walking
B. Independently sitting with support
C. Speaking complete sentences
D. Riding a tricycle
Answer: B
Section 6: Mental Health Nursing
Q39. A patient experiencing a panic attack is hyperventilating and reports intense fear. What is the nurse’s priority?
A. Leave the patient alone
B. Stay with the patient and provide calm, brief communication
C. Challenge the patient’s fear aggressively
D. Encourage complex decision-making
Answer: B
Q40. Which finding is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
A. Avolition
B. Flat affect
C. Auditory hallucinations
D. Social withdrawal
Answer: C
Q41. A patient taking clozapine develops fever and sore throat. The nurse should be particularly concerned about:
A. Agranulocytosis
B. Hypervitaminosis
C. Cataract
D. Dehydration only
Answer: A
Q42. Which therapeutic communication technique is most appropriate when a patient expresses a delusion?
A. Agree with the delusion
B. Argue until the patient changes their belief
C. Acknowledge the patient’s feelings without reinforcing the delusion
D. Laugh at the patient’s statement
Answer: C
Section 7: Community Health Nursing
Q43. The epidemiological triad consists of:
A. Agent, host and environment
B. Nurse, doctor and patient
C. Time, place and person only
D. Diagnosis, treatment and rehabilitation
Answer: A
Q44. Immunisation primarily represents which level of prevention?
A. Primordial prevention only
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. Tertiary prevention
Answer: B
Q45. Which indicator measures the probability of a child dying before reaching five years of age?
A. Maternal mortality ratio
B. Under-five mortality rate
C. Crude birth rate
D. General fertility rate
Answer: B
Q46. The recommended first response to a suspected outbreak of a communicable disease is to:
A. Ignore isolated cases
B. Verify the diagnosis and begin outbreak investigation
C. Immediately close all hospitals
D. Stop all vaccination activities
Answer: B
Q47. Which method is most appropriate for disposing of used needles?
A. Recapping with both hands
B. Throwing them into ordinary waste
C. Placing them directly into a puncture-resistant sharps container
D. Breaking them manually
Answer: C
Section 8: Emergency and Critical Care Nursing
Q48. A patient develops anaphylaxis after receiving an injection. Which medication is the first-line treatment?
A. Intramuscular adrenaline
B. Oral iron
C. Intravenous furosemide
D. Oral calcium
Answer: A
Q49. A patient with a central venous catheter suddenly develops breathlessness and hypotension during catheter manipulation. Which complication should be suspected?
A. Air embolism
B. Constipation
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Otitis media
Answer: A
Q50. A patient with severe sepsis has hypotension despite initial fluid resuscitation. Which intervention may be required to support blood pressure?
A. Vasopressor therapy as prescribed
B. Fluid restriction in every case
C. Immediate oral feeding
D. Discontinuation of monitoring
Answer: A
NORCET 11 2026 Stage 2 Answer Key: 50 MCQs
| Question | Answer | Question | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | B | 26 | B |
| 2 | B | 27 | B |
| 3 | B | 28 | A |
| 4 | B | 29 | A |
| 5 | C | 30 | B |
| 6 | C | 31 | A |
| 7 | C | 32 | B |
| 8 | C | 33 | B |
| 9 | C | 34 | B |
| 10 | B | 35 | C |
| 11 | A | 36 | A |
| 12 | B | 37 | A |
| 13 | A | 38 | B |
| 14 | A | 39 | B |
| 15 | B | 40 | C |
| 16 | B | 41 | A |
| 17 | A | 42 | C |
| 18 | A | 43 | A |
| 19 | B | 44 | B |
| 20 | B | 45 | B |
| 21 | A | 46 | B |
| 22 | B | 47 | C |
| 23 | A | 48 | A |
| 24 | A | 49 | A |
| 25 | A | 50 | A |
Official Website: https://www.aiims.edu/index.php/en
Preparation Tip for NORCET 11 2026 Stage 2
Prioritise Medical-Surgical Nursing, Fundamentals of Nursing, Pharmacology, Obstetrics, Paediatrics, Mental Health Nursing, Community Health Nursing and emergency care. Practise case-based questions and revise drug antidotes, emergency protocols, critical-care priorities and nursing procedures. Stage II is described in current preparation resources as a nursing-only examination, with 160 questions and a 180-minute duration.